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Finance · level 2

MM Proposition II

In a perfect market the WACC is pinned to the asset risk. Add debt and the cost of equity climbs just enough to offset the cheaper debt.

Worked example: Unlevered cost of capital 10%, cost of debt 6%, debt-to-equity 1.5. Ignoring taxes, what is the levered cost of equity?

r_U10%
r_D6%
D/E1.5
r_E16%

Step by step

  1. 1

    MM II

    r_E = r_U + (D/E)(r_U − r_D)

  2. 2

    Plug in

    10% + 1.5 × (10% − 6%) = 16%

  3. 3

    Check the WACC

    40% × 16% + 60% × 6% = 10% = r_U

  4. 4

    Meaning

    Leverage does not create value by swapping cheap debt for dear equity — equity simply gets riskier by exactly the amount that keeps the WACC flat.

Unlevered cost of capital 10%, cost of debt 6%, debt-to-equity 1.5. Ignoring taxes, what is the levered cost of equity? = 16

The theory behind it

Intuition

Finance is time and risk applied to cash: move every cash flow to the same date at a rate that reflects its risk, then compare.

Common pitfalls

  • ×Discounting a nominal flow at a real rate (or vice versa).
  • ×Mixing enterprise-value and equity-value numbers in the same ratio.

In the interview

Valuation, WACC, LBO and accretion rounds — where a wrong bridge is a wrong answer.